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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 20:28

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why do some women alter their faces by so-called cosmetic surgeries (on their eyes, cheeks, lips, chin, jaw) that making them look like Donald Duck or puffy aliens, while for most men these unnatural facial changes are ridiculous or even disgusting?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why do I feel like I want to suck a big dick after injecting meth?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

I just cannot wake up early, even if I sleep on time. What should I do?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.